Vendor Assessment Questionnaire Template: 48 Questions
Copy a 48-question vendor assessment questionnaire template with evidence fields, risk routing, optional add-ons, scoring logic, and review steps.

A usable vendor assessment questionnaire template combines scoped questions with response, evidence, and internal decision fields—not just a list of security prompts. Copy the 48 core questions below into Excel, Word, or a form builder, then send only the modules that fit the vendor’s service. Four optional packs add up to 12 questions for AI features, privileged integrations, distributed software, and personnel access.
A vendor’s “Yes” is a claim. The assessment begins when a reviewer checks its scope, supporting evidence, owner, date, and exceptions.
This original template is an operational starting point rather than a licensed standard. It does not determine regulatory applicability, compliance, certification, or contractual position. Verify those questions against current official material and qualified counsel where appropriate.
The template produces two records, not one
A questionnaire collects vendor-supplied information. An assessment records what your organization concluded from that information. Keeping those records separate prevents vendor edits from changing internal analysis.
| Record | Purpose | Typical owner | Visible to vendor? |
|---|---|---|---|
| Vendor questionnaire | Collect scoped answers, explanations, and evidence references | Vendor contact | Yes |
| Vendor assessment form | Record validation, gaps, follow-up, and disposition | Internal reviewer | Usually no |
| TPRM checklist | Track the wider third-party risk management workflow from intake through exit | Program owner | Usually no |
A TPRM checklist can therefore contain tasks such as classification, questionnaire selection, evidence review, decision recording, monitoring triggers, and offboarding. It is broader than the questionnaire itself.
For a SaaS-focused explanation of the parties, evidence, and exceptions involved, see Vendor Security Questionnaires: A Practical SaaS Guide.
A four-sheet workbook keeps claims and decisions apart
A practical Excel version uses four sheets:
- Intake and routing: vendor, service, business owner, intended use, data flow, access model, routing score, and selected modules.
- Questionnaire: the vendor-facing questions, response fields, explanations, and evidence IDs.
- Evidence register: artifact metadata and the questions each artifact supports.
- Review log: reviewer status, follow-up, gaps, accepted limitations, decision, and review triggers.
Use stable question IDs so references survive sorting and export. A useful questionnaire row contains these columns:
| Field | What belongs in it |
|---|---|
| Question ID | Stable identifier such as Q19 |
| Module | Data, access, resilience, or another topic |
| Applies? | Yes, no, or pending scope review |
| Question | One testable prompt |
| Vendor response | Yes, partial, no, not applicable, or planned |
| Explanation | Scope, implementation, exclusions, and relevant context |
| Evidence ID | Reference into the evidence register |
| Evidence date | Artifact version, issue date, or test date |
| Vendor owner | Person or function able to clarify the answer |
| Reviewer status | Accepted, clarification needed, gap recorded, or escalated |
| Follow-up | Specific unresolved request |
| Decision note | Internal rationale, not a copy of the vendor’s answer |
Keep planned separate from yes. A future target date describes intent, not the current operating state. Likewise, “not applicable” becomes reviewable only when the explanation identifies the excluded component or use case.
An eight-field evidence register can use: evidence ID, artifact title, owner, version or date, covered system, linked question IDs, controlled location, and review trigger. That is enough metadata to detect a common failure: a valid document attached to the wrong product or environment.
Copy-ready vendor assessment questionnaire template
The questions below are original operational prompts. They do not reproduce CAIQ, HECVAT, SIG, ISO, or customer-owned questionnaire text. Evidence suggestions are examples; relevance depends on the assessed service and the access available to each party.
Q01–Q12 establish scope before technical review
| ID | Module | Vendor question | Possible evidence or context |
|---|---|---|---|
| Q01 | Vendor profile | Identify the legal entity that contracts for and delivers the assessed service. | Contracting details or corporate profile |
| Q02 | Vendor profile | Describe the service, intended use, and functions included in the assessment scope. | Service description or scoped architecture summary |
| Q03 | Vendor profile | List delivery models, hosting regions, and customer-controlled deployment choices. | Current deployment documentation |
| Q04 | Vendor profile | Name contacts for commercial, security, privacy, incident, and technical follow-up. | Contact and escalation matrix |
| Q05 | Data handling | Identify the information categories the service stores, processes, transmits, or can access. | Data inventory or service-specific data list |
| Q06 | Data handling | Provide a current data-flow view covering ingress, storage, transfers, and deletion paths. | Diagram with systems and boundaries labeled |
| Q07 | Data handling | State storage and processing locations, including relevant fourth-party locations. | Hosting and supplier location register |
| Q08 | Data handling | Describe primary and backup retention, customer-configurable periods, and deletion verification. | Retention schedule and deletion procedure |
| Q09 | Governance | Name accountable roles for security, privacy, continuity, and service operations. | Responsibility matrix or policy ownership list |
| Q10 | Governance | List policies relevant to the assessed service, with owner and latest review date. | Policy index rather than unrestricted policy files |
| Q11 | Governance | Describe how service risks and exceptions are recorded, approved, and re-examined. | Risk or exception workflow |
| Q12 | Governance | Describe general and role-specific security training for personnel supporting the service. | Training curriculum and completion summary |
Scope answers are not administrative filler. Q02, Q05, and Q17 define which later evidence is relevant. If a vendor answers for its corporate environment while the buyer is assessing one hosted product, apparent contradictions will follow.
Q13–Q32 examine access, technology, development, and monitoring
| ID | Module | Vendor question | Possible evidence or context |
|---|---|---|---|
| Q13 | Identity and access | List authentication methods available to customer users, including SSO and MFA options. | Product configuration documentation |
| Q14 | Identity and access | Explain how privileged access is requested, approved, limited, and reviewed for the assessed service. | Privileged-access workflow and review record |
| Q15 | Identity and access | Describe joiner, mover, and leaver handling for workforce and contractor access. | Access lifecycle procedure |
| Q16 | Identity and access | List customer administrator roles, permissions, audit events, and options for restricting vendor support access. | Role matrix and audit-log documentation |
| Q17 | Infrastructure | Identify infrastructure providers, major service components, and shared-responsibility boundaries. | Architecture diagram or responsibility matrix |
| Q18 | Infrastructure | Describe asset inventory, configuration baselines, and detection of unauthorized changes for in-scope components. | Inventory and configuration-control summary |
| Q19 | Infrastructure | Describe encryption in transit and at rest, including responsibility for key generation, storage, rotation, and recovery. | Cryptographic architecture or key-management summary |
| Q20 | Infrastructure | Explain tenant separation or environment isolation and how the design is evaluated. | Architecture and scoped test summary |
| Q21 | Secure development | Describe the development lifecycle and where code review and security checks occur. | Development lifecycle diagram |
| Q22 | Secure development | Explain how third-party code and dependencies are inventoried and evaluated. | Dependency inventory process or component report |
| Q23 | Secure development | Summarize pre-release testing and the route for documenting accepted exceptions. | Release checklist and exception workflow |
| Q24 | Change management | Describe production change approval, deployment, rollback, and customer notification options. | Change procedure and sample record |
| Q25 | Vulnerability management | List vulnerability discovery inputs, scanning coverage, and testing cadence. | Coverage summary and recent dated output |
| Q26 | Vulnerability management | Explain prioritization and remediation targets, including who can approve exceptions. | Remediation policy and exception record |
| Q27 | Vulnerability management | Provide the date, scope, and status of the latest relevant independent security test. | Controlled report or executive summary |
| Q28 | Vulnerability management | Provide the reporting channel for suspected vulnerabilities and describe triage. | Disclosure page or internal workflow summary |
| Q29 | Logging and monitoring | List security-relevant events recorded for the service and administrative activity. | Event catalogue or logging specification |
| Q30 | Logging and monitoring | State log retention, integrity measures, access restrictions, and time-synchronization approach. | Logging architecture and retention configuration |
| Q31 | Logging and monitoring | Describe monitoring coverage, alert triage, escalation, and on-call boundaries. | Monitoring and escalation procedure |
| Q32 | Logging and monitoring | List audit events customers can view or export and identify known gaps. | Product documentation or sample event schema |
Avoid combining multiple controls into an unexplained yes/no cell. Q19, for example, asks about data state and key responsibility because “encrypted” alone does not reveal which component is covered or who controls the keys.
Q33–Q48 cover incidents, resilience, fourth parties, assurance, and exit
| ID | Module | Vendor question | Possible evidence or context |
|---|---|---|---|
| Q33 | Incident response | Describe incident roles, severity model, and the latest exercise date. | Response plan index and exercise summary |
| Q34 | Incident response | Describe the customer-notification decision process, channels, contacts, and contract-specific timing inputs. | Communication workflow and contact matrix |
| Q35 | Incident response | Explain how event evidence, timelines, and customer communications are preserved during response. | Case-management or evidence-handling procedure |
| Q36 | Incident response | Describe post-incident review and how corrective actions receive owners and status. | Redacted review template or action log |
| Q37 | Continuity | Identify dependencies and recovery priorities for functions in the assessed scope. | Business impact or dependency summary |
| Q38 | Continuity | Describe backup scope, separation, restoration method, latest test date, and result. | Backup design and restoration-test summary |
| Q39 | Continuity | Describe the latest continuity or recovery exercise scenario, scope, date, and unresolved actions. | Exercise report or action register |
| Q40 | Continuity | State availability design, failover assumptions, offered recovery targets, and material exclusions. | Resilience architecture and service terms |
| Q41 | Fourth parties | List fourth parties supporting critical functions or handling customer information for the service. | Service-specific supplier register |
| Q42 | Fourth parties | Describe how relevant fourth parties are selected, monitored, and re-evaluated. | Supplier review workflow |
| Q43 | Fourth parties | Describe the process for fourth-party changes and customer notice or choice, where offered. | Change process and customer documentation |
| Q44 | Fourth parties | Identify geographic, provider, or single-component concentrations that could affect continuity. | Dependency map and treatment notes |
| Q45 | Assurance | List current certifications, attestations, tests, or audits with scope, period, and exclusions. | Scoped certificate, report, or summary |
| Q46 | Assurance | List material open findings, exceptions, or qualifications relevant to the use case and their current treatment status. | Findings register or treatment summary |
| Q47 | Exit | Describe customer export formats, data portability, access period, and transition assistance at exit. | Export documentation and service terms |
| Q48 | Exit | Describe return or deletion across primary, replicated, and backup data, including available confirmation. | Offboarding and deletion procedure |
This core set centers information security and operational resilience for technology vendors. Broader procurement reviews can attach organization-approved modules for product quality, commercial viability, sustainability, or other concerns without mixing those decisions into the security score.
Four conditional packs expand 48 questions to 60
Conditional packs keep specialized questions away from vendors that cannot answer them meaningfully. Add a pack only when the feature or access exists in the proposed use case.
| ID | Trigger | Additional question |
|---|---|---|
| A01 | AI or ML feature | Identify customer inputs, generated outputs, metadata, and the retention applied to each. |
| A02 | AI or ML feature | State whether customer content is used for model training or tuning, what choices exist, and which providers participate. |
| A03 | AI or ML feature | Describe human review, abstention, logging, and communicated limitations for generated output. |
| P01 | Privileged integration | List requested permissions, API scopes, network paths, and the purpose of each. |
| P02 | Privileged integration | Describe storage, rotation, revocation, and emergency handling for tokens or secrets. |
| P03 | Privileged integration | Identify recorded integration activity and the customer’s emergency-disable route. |
| S01 | Distributed software | Describe how releases or packages are signed and how customers can verify origin and integrity. |
| S02 | Distributed software | Describe update distribution, supported versions, rollback, and handling of failed updates. |
| S03 | Distributed software | State what component or dependency information is available for the delivered package. |
| H01 | Personnel access | Describe approval and scoping of personnel access to customer systems or information. |
| H02 | Personnel access | Describe the managed device or remote-work controls used for that access. |
| H03 | Personnel access | Explain how access changes when an assigned person changes role or leaves the engagement. |
All four packs produce a 60-question maximum in this model. A vendor with no AI feature, distributed component, privileged integration, or personnel access stays at 48 or fewer after applicability filtering.
Route review depth with a transparent 100-point model
The following score is an original routing device, not an external benchmark or measure of vendor quality. It estimates how deeply your intended use deserves review. Rate each factor from 0 to 4, then calculate:
Routing score = Σ (factor rating ÷ 4 × factor weight)
| Factor | Weight | Rating 0 anchor | Rating 4 anchor |
|---|---|---|---|
| Information exposure | 30 | No organizational information beyond public material | Broad access to restricted or high-impact information |
| Access privilege | 25 | No account, integration, or environment access | Administrative, production, or extensive write access |
| Operational dependency | 20 | Optional service with a simple workaround | Service interruption stops a critical workflow without a practical workaround |
| Integration depth | 15 | Isolated or manual exchange | Persistent agent, network connection, or bidirectional API integration |
| Exit friction | 10 | Straightforward export and replacement | Complex migration, proprietary dependency, or concentrated knowledge |
Intermediate ratings describe conditions between the anchors. A conservative pilot can rate an unknown factor as 4 until intake clarifies it; a team may adopt another documented unknown-handling rule.
| Score | Pilot route | Questionnaire depth |
|---|---|---|
| 0–24 | Scope screen | Q01–Q12 and Q45–Q48: 16 questions, with reviewer discretion to expand |
| 25–49 | Core review | All 48 core questions |
| 50–74 | Enhanced review | Core questions plus each relevant three-question pack |
| 75–100 | Named-reviewer route | Tailored questions plus reviewers selected for the data, access, resilience, and exit concerns |
Internal policy, contract terms, official requirements, or counsel-led analysis can override these pilot bands. No numeric result authorizes approval by itself.
Fictional worked example: A service receives an information-exposure rating of 3, access privilege of 2, operational dependency of 4, integration depth of 3, and exit friction of 1. Its calculation is 22.5 + 12.5 + 20 + 11.25 + 2.5 = 68.75. Rounded for display, 69 routes to enhanced review. The score explains review depth; it does not say that the fictional vendor is safe, unsafe, compliant, or non-compliant.
Grade evidence separately from the vendor’s answer
Do not convert response vocabulary into a risk score. “No” may describe an irrelevant control, while “Yes” may lack usable proof. Apply a separate evidence level to each material answer:
| Level | Evidence state | Reviewer interpretation |
|---|---|---|
| E0 | No artifact or verifiable reference | Unsupported claim; request context or record the gap |
| E1 | Narrative explanation only | Scope is clearer, but implementation remains uncorroborated |
| E2 | Named artifact with owner, date, and relevant scope | Review the content, exclusions, and accessibility |
| E3 | Scoped artifact plus validation context such as a test, exercise, or independent report | Examine method, period, findings, and applicability rather than accepting the label |
E3 is not automatically decisive. An independent report can exclude the product under review. A recent document can describe the wrong environment. Conversely, an older architecture diagram may remain usable if its owner confirms that the relevant design has not changed.
Open follow-up when one of these conditions appears:
- The answer conflicts with the cited artifact.
- “Not applicable” lacks a scope explanation.
- The artifact excludes the assessed product, region, or period.
- A planned control is described as operating today.
- A material answer has no accessible evidence or accountable owner.
- The answer omits a known exception revealed elsewhere in the questionnaire.
Reviewer labels such as accepted, clarification needed, gap recorded, and escalated describe workflow state. They do not certify a control or erase residual uncertainty.
How to conduct a vendor assessment in seven steps
1. Define the proposed use
Record the service, users, information, integrations, regions, environments, and business workflow. Assess the proposed configuration rather than the vendor’s entire company in the abstract.
2. Route before reading polished answers
Score the inherent use case using information exposure, privilege, dependency, integration, and exit friction. Doing this first keeps the vendor’s writing quality from changing the depth assigned to the use case.
3. Select questions by applicability
Choose the 16-question screen, 48-question core, or relevant add-on packs. Mark exclusions explicitly. Sending all 60 questions to every supplier creates noise without clarifying the actual decision.
Public examples illustrate the value of scope. Carnegie Mellon University’s vendor technology workbook separates SaaS-specific prompts, while the CISA Vendor SCRM Template frames its purpose around normalizing questions for ICT suppliers and providers. These references do not make a local questionnaire equivalent to either source.
4. Issue response instructions
Define the response vocabulary, evidence-ID convention, controlled sharing route, assessment scope, and clarification contact. Ask for explanations that identify product, environment, geography, and exclusions instead of generic corporate statements.
5. Validate claims against evidence
Check artifact scope, date, owner, accessibility, and consistency. Record missing proof without inventing a positive or negative answer. If several questions cite one document, confirm that the relevant sections actually address each claim.
6. Record gaps without rewriting history
Preserve the vendor’s answer, then add a separate reviewer note. Capture the concern, affected use, available compensating measure, owner, decision route, and next trigger. A vendor correction can become a new response version rather than silently replacing the original.
7. Record the decision and its trigger
State who decided, what scope was accepted, which conditions remain, and what event reopens the review. Useful triggers include a material service change, new integration, changed information flow, incident affecting the assessed scope, expired evidence, fourth-party change, or planned exit.
If your organization is completing a customer’s assessment rather than issuing one, use the responder workflow in How to answer security questionnaires: step-by-step guide.
Three failure modes reveal a weak template early
One corporate “Yes” covers several products
The answer may describe headquarters policy while the reviewed product uses a different hosting model or team. Detect this by requiring the service, environment, and evidence scope in separate fields.
Certification replaces question-level analysis
A certificate or attestation is an artifact with a stated scope, period, and exclusions. Record it in Q45, then connect it only to questions the reviewed material actually supports.
More questions replace a decision
A reviewer requests another policy whenever uncertainty appears but never states the unresolved decision. Use one follow-up field that asks: What fact would change the disposition? If no possible answer would change it, further document collection is unlikely to resolve that decision.
Excel, Word, and PDF serve different review moments
| Format | Fits | Preserve carefully | Common limitation |
|---|---|---|---|
| Excel or XLSX | Conditional modules, filtering, evidence registers, and review queues | Stable IDs, validation lists, formulas, hidden columns, and version label | Copies can diverge and formulas can be overwritten |
| Word | Smaller narrative reviews and comment-based collaboration | Table headers, question IDs, evidence references, and tracked decisions | Aggregation and conditional routing are manual |
| A fixed issued or approved snapshot | Visible version, scope, issue date, IDs, and referenced attachments | Sorting, status updates, and evidence navigation are limited |
For Excel, keep formulas out of vendor-editable decision columns and protect the review log from external edits. For Word, repeat table headers across pages. For PDF, retain selectable text and explicit evidence IDs rather than embedding unlabeled screenshots.
A simple version convention such as VAQ-2026-08-v1.0 distinguishes the template release from each vendor response. Give each response its own identifier, for example VAQ-Vendor-Service-2026-08-R1. These are naming examples, not prescribed standards.
Map frameworks through a ledger, not a marketing label
Calling a questionnaire “ISO 27001 aligned,” “NIST ready,” or “CAIQ compatible” can imply more than topical overlap. Keep framework mapping in a separate ledger with seven fields: source name, source version, source control or question ID, local question ID, mapping rationale, reviewer, and verification date.
Before reproducing wording from CAIQ, HECVAT, SIG, ISO publications, or another maintained framework, obtain the current source from its owner and check its usage terms. This article intentionally supplies original questions rather than copied framework content.
A mapping ledger also exposes version drift. When a source changes, the team can inspect affected local IDs instead of renaming the entire questionnaire. The mapping remains a navigational aid; applicability, conformity, certification, and legal conclusions stay separate.
Automation fits the clerical layer; people retain the decision
Questionnaire automation can assist with importing rows, preserving IDs, detecting duplicates, routing owners, proposing evidence references, and flagging unanswered fields. Human review remains relevant where the work involves scope, exceptions, conflicting evidence, disclosure choices, or acceptance of a gap.
A generated draft is still a claim. Citation to a source document makes its basis inspectable, but the reviewer still checks whether the source covers the service and whether the wording overstates it.
Compliance Concierge addresses the responder side of this workflow: it drafts answers from a customer’s uploaded evidence, cites the supporting documents, and keeps export behind human review. It does not decide whether a vendor is suitable or turn an answer into a compliance determination. AI Security Questionnaire Automation With Human Review explains that division of work in more detail.
Frequently asked questions
What is a vendor questionnaire?
A vendor questionnaire is a structured request for supplier-provided information about a defined service or relationship. A usable version records the answer, explanation, evidence reference, evidence date, and accountable contact. The vendor supplies those fields; the reviewer records conclusions separately.
What is a vendor assessment form?
A vendor assessment form is the internal record of scope, validation, unresolved gaps, follow-up, disposition, and review triggers. It can reference a vendor questionnaire, but it should not let the supplier edit internal decision rationale.
What is a TPRM checklist?
A third-party risk management checklist tracks the wider operational process: intake, classification, questionnaire selection, evidence review, decision, monitoring triggers, and exit. The questionnaire is one input to that checklist rather than the whole process.
How many questions should a vendor assessment contain?
Question count follows scope rather than an industry-wide target. This model offers a 16-question screen, a 48-question core, and four three-question add-on packs. If every pack applies, the maximum is 60. Internal policy, contractual context, official requirements, and specialist judgment can produce a different route.
Can I use this as a free Word, Excel, or PDF template?
Yes. Paste the tables into a four-sheet workbook for routing and analysis, a Word table for narrative collaboration, or a PDF for a fixed issue copy. Preserve question IDs, version, scope, evidence references, and a separate internal review record across formats.
Can a completed questionnaire prove that a vendor is compliant?
No. It records claims, evidence, and review decisions within a stated scope. It does not establish regulatory applicability, legal interpretation, certification, or conformity by itself. Verify those matters against current official sources and qualified counsel where relevant.
What should I do first?
Create the four workbook sheets, paste Q01–Q48, and select one pilot service. Complete Q01–Q12 internally before sending the questionnaire. If those answers leave the information flow, access model, or operational dependency unknown, resolve the scope first; the remaining questions will then have something concrete to assess.
From guidance to finished work
Answer the next questionnaire with evidence.
Upload the questionnaire and the policies behind it. Compliance Concierge drafts cautious, cited answers while every final decision stays with a human reviewer.
The questionnaires this covers
This article discusses the questionnaires below. Each page explains how that workbook is structured and what answering it actually involves.